Richard Moody wrote: > > > We are at the point where the meaning of cents has to be nailed down. > The definition is 100 cents between each semitone. 1200 cents in an octave. > If there are 100 cps between semitones, logic would assume 1 cent to > equal > 1 cps for this interval only. If there were 50 cps then 1 cent would > equal .5 cps. > No, sorry! A cent is also a logarithmic unit!!!! That means we logaritmically divide an octave in 1200 parts. That is: one cent is 2^(1/1200)=1.00057778950655.... The reason why most of us use % as cents, is that it is a pretty good approximation!!! And usually it is OK - but if we want to nail down the definition, we have to do it. I hope I have made more people even more confused...:)
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