Hi Jim I wanted to ask you but held off, thinking it would come up. You mentioned.... > the cents deviations of actual octavely related partials taken from > my Steinway L, note C4. > > 1st partial 2nd partial 4th partial 8th partial > > 2.1 2.8 6.2 20.2 in Cents > If I read it right does it say the first partial has a "cents deviation" of 2.1 ? I can't figure out how the fundamental (commonly called the first partial) can deviate by more than 0.0 cents let alone 2.1. Regarding the 20.2 cents for the 8th partial, I assume that is twenty cents sharp. Does that mean the freq measured for the 8th partial of C4 is 20.2 cents sharp from theoretical. (8 times the fundamental F*8 ) ? I know you know I need this like a (another) hole in the head, but why does the SAT need to odd partials compared to ET?. Because of this comparison is that why some of the readings have negative cents which could be interpreted in real terms as a partial that is flat which is acoustically impossible? Ric Wondering > In anticipation of your next question, when you plot for, 3rd, 5th, > 6th, and 7th partials, you must make a correction for equal temperament > being the source of the readings. Here are the readings taken with > and electronic tuning machine: > > 3rd partial 5th partial 6th partial 7th partial > > 5.9 -4.6 13.6 -15.4
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