Bass strings changing scale

[Ron Nossaman]

>You talked of "blending impedance".  I asked perfectly civilly, as 
>did another, what this meant, and gave you an opportunity to show how 
>you would apply a received formula to a particular case.  You first 
>provide a very equivocal assessment of the formula without any 
>further explanation and then when asked how you apply it, you resort 
>to pained language as though I'd offended you.

And I answered the question, posting a formula used as an indicator. I have
no knowledge of how this formula was arrived at, just it's source and
proposed usage. Now again, what did I say to indicate otherwise?


>Since you are so keen on declarative technology, for once you can 
>justify just one of your theories.  From the little you have revealed 
>of your treatment of the bass scale  previously I have gathered that 
>it is probably unmatched in the history of the past 150 years and 
>wonder why some talented and genial maker has not by chance hit upon 
>anything remotely similar in all of their years of experimentation, 
>but now I am giving you the chance to show me that I've got the wrong 
>end of the stick and that your bass scalings are what we've all been 
>waiting for.

This pretty well makes my point. My superficial descriptions of what I do
were dismissed by you with this same observation, and a declaration that a
string configuration at 55% of breaking was at "dangerously high" tension
in spite of it's having replaced the original at 66%. I have no reason to
expect anything more productive with a sample scale along those same lines.
It's not how it was done for the last 150 years, so it can't possibly work.


> I don't set myself up as anybody's guru.

Nor do I. Try out the formula and let me know what you think.

Ron N