resultant tones

[Michael Jorgensen]

I once heard from a theory teacher that a dial tone in the United States is a
difference tone and some people hear it as two distinct high treble pitches.  I
hear one tone equal to F# 2.  Is there anybody on this list who hears it
differently?

-Mike Jorgensen

Richard Moody wrote:

> ----- Original Message -----
> From: Richard Brekne <Richard.Brekne@grieg.uib.no>
> To: <pianotech@ptg.org>
> Sent: Tuesday, February 20, 2001 10:42 AM
> Subject: Re: resultant tones
>
> >
> >
> > Richard Moody wrote:
> >
> > >  I don't know what the difference would be of a tone between say 100 cps and
> 130
> > > cps as compared to 400 cps and 430 cps.
> >
> > Now thats an interesting question... I wonder if there is a difference in
> resultant
> > tones of same frequencies created by differing fundementals, and if so... why
> and
> > what kind of differences there are.
> >
> >
> > --
> > Richard Brekne
>
> As long as we are on it, what then would be the difference between say 22,000
> and 22,440 ?   Or are there audible resultants from two supersonic frequencies?
> Would they have to be loud or very loud and how loud would the resultants be?
> Perhaps two dog whistles would shed light.  No two dog whistles can possible be
> the same freq.
> The diff between the two above freqs is about 34 cents ---ric