resultant tones

[Don]

Hi Mike,

Assuming ET and zero inharmonicity the theoretical values are:

A4 =~ 440    hertz
F4 =~ 349.43 hertz

difference is 90.57 hertz which is a bit closer to F2 (87.31) than F#2. 

A "just" (non tempered) third would produce a resultant tone exactly two
octaves below the lower note.

Of course the values will vary from location to location slightly as there
is no guaranttee of accuracy from the telecos!

http://www.allchurchsound.com/ACS/pdf/PIANO.pdf


At 09:32 AM 2/22/01 +0000, you wrote:
>I once heard from a theory teacher that a dial tone in the United States is a
>difference tone and some people hear it as two distinct high treble
pitches.  I
>hear one tone equal to F# 2.  Is there anybody on this list who hears it
>differently?
>
>-Mike Jorgensen
>
>Richard Moody wrote:
>
>> ----- Original Message -----
>> From: Richard Brekne <Richard.Brekne@grieg.uib.no>
>> To: <pianotech@ptg.org>
>> Sent: Tuesday, February 20, 2001 10:42 AM
>> Subject: Re: resultant tones
>>
>> >
>> >
>> > Richard Moody wrote:
>> >
>> > >  I don't know what the difference would be of a tone between say 100
cps and
>> 130
>> > > cps as compared to 400 cps and 430 cps.
>> >
>> > Now thats an interesting question... I wonder if there is a difference in
>> resultant
>> > tones of same frequencies created by differing fundementals, and if
so... why
>> and
>> > what kind of differences there are.
>> >
>> >
>> > --
>> > Richard Brekne
>>
>> As long as we are on it, what then would be the difference between say
22,000
>> and 22,440 ?   Or are there audible resultants from two supersonic
frequencies?
>> Would they have to be loud or very loud and how loud would the
resultants be?
>> Perhaps two dog whistles would shed light.  No two dog whistles can
possible be
>> the same freq.
>> The diff between the two above freqs is about 34 cents ---ric
>
>
>

Regards,
Don Rose, B.Mus., A.M.U.S., A.MUS., R.M.T., R.P.T.

Tuner for the Saskatchewan Centre of the Arts

mailto:drose@dlcwest.com
http://donrose.xoasis.com/

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