Greetings, combining several posts: Bill writes: >Why does Terry's voice sound like his instead of his wife's? The >answer doesn't lie in the proportions of the lower eight or sixteen >partials but in the entire spectrum of acoustical energy delivered by >the particular instrument, as the human being plays it. The full spectrum isn't necessary to tell one voice from another. The telephone only transmits frequencies between (I think), 50Hz -800Hz, but that is sufficient for us to recognize individuals voices. Regards, Ed Foote RPT Ron writes: >>The reason why A440 sounds like A440 on a piano, voice and mandolin, >>is that our ear locks onto the lowest frequency, the fundamental, to >>identify the pitch of the note. it was my understanding that the ear recognizes the pitch of a note by using the separation between frequencies as a "harmonic sequence" to discern the fundamental. In fact, it has been shown that a synthesized "note" of the 2nd, 3rd, 4th, etc. partials, in the order of 200, 300, 400, etc. causes the ear to hear the fundamental of 100, even when it is not present. Regards Ed Foote
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