Took the liberty of re attaching this portion to the thread I origionaly placed them in. Ron Nossaman wrote: > >Especially in light of the experiment McFerrin describes which quite > >clearly validifies that compression waves can and do indeed cause sound to > >emanate from the sound board in this fashion. > > Does he? Actually, yes... but not in the quote below, rather in the experiment I mentioned above. > You quoted: > > >"The transverse wave of the string sets up a longitudinal wave through the > >thickness > >of the bridge so the energy reaches the sound board." > > > > > And where exactly does he say that these waves cause sound to emanate from > the board in this fashion? Everyone and their Aunt Sally agrees that every > kind of wave known to man travels in just about every part of a piano. The > question is whether the wave causes the soundboard to move, isn't it? > As I said... in the cited experiment... I can quote that for you too actually if you want me too, but you have McFerrins book I assume. Read the end of page 9 and through the first paragraph on page 10. OK... he does not expressly say that sound emanates from the assembly in this fashion when it is the strings that are the source of input energy. But he does say that the strings energy reaches the soundboard by way of longitudinal waves. That certainly sounds more akin to the reasoning JD and Robin present then what your camp have said. Fair enough ? Then he goes on to cite an experiment which demonstrates that sound is indeed produced when the bridge is coupled to a longitudinal sound wave source. Am I to assume he is going somewhere else with all this ? The jist of his whole opening discussion seems to point in this direction pretty clearly, but ok. -- Richard Brekne RPT, N.P.T.F. Bergen, Norway mailto:rbrekne@broadpark.no
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