far bridge pin

[Ron Nossaman]

>When seating strings to the bridge, (to eliminate false beats) I do it on the
>speaking side bridge pins, and also on the non-speaking side.  I do it just
>to be safe, to be sure that the effort I'm making to improve the tone of the
>piano is not for naught.  (And...also because I've been told by the store
>that I work for that that's the way they want it done.)
>
>Still, I have to wonder if anyone else does this.

Almost certainly.


>If the purpose of seating strings is to provide a solid termination point for
>the speaking length of the string, then what effect would seating the string
>to the other bridge pin have on the tone, or falseness of the string?

Aside from the likelihood that seating strings in the field doesn't provide 
a solid termination point for the speaking length, none whatsoever.


>Have I been wasting my time seating strings to both sets of bridge pins?

I'd say so, but then I'd say you have been largely wasting your time 
seating the strings on the speaking side too.


>Recently, I successfully eliminated false beating in a Samick grand by
>tapping the bridge pins in deeper. (Seating the strings to the bridge did not
>seem to help on this piano.)  I tapped the pins in only on the speaking side
>bridge pins, and that alone made a HUGE difference in the tuning of this
>beast.  For the first time (and I've tuned this piano about 12 times now) the
>piano sounded in tune when I was done with it.
>
>Should I have tapped in the non-speaking pins, too?

I'd say there was both little point to, and less harm done by seating back 
row strings or pins.

Ron N