Touchweight was Cockeyed hammers / Don Gilmore

Richard Brekne Richard.Brekne@grieg.uib.no
Sat, 20 Dec 2003 19:56:25 +0100


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"Don A. Gilmore" wrote:

>  Hi Richard: I'm not sure what the qualifications of your "physics
> guy" are, but inertia is not even an engineering quantity.  There are
> no units of "inertia".  It is just a concept regarding the nature of
> matter.  All bodies with mass have inertia and tend to want to stay at
> a constant velocity and move in a straight line.

Doesnt really matter.... beyond saying that he is regarded by many as an
authoritive figure in these matters by many in the PTG. Scary I
guess...   any ways ..my point is that one can easily get led astray
around here :)  I << believe >> at this point I have things rather
sorted out... at least at this stage of things.



> Though a piano action does a lot of fancy stuff, it still is a captive
> mechanism.  In other words, up till the point where the hammer is
> released there is a specific, repeatable relation between key movement
> and hammer movement.  So for any given position of the key downward,
> there is a specific angle of the hammer produced.  You could draw a
> graph showing key movement along the ordinate axis and hammer angle
> along the abcissa.  And an equation can be determined that describes
> this curve.  From this equation can be derived all the other equations
> of motion including those for velocity, acceleration and perhaps even
> jerk.  These would tell you exactly what that all-important "release
> velocity" is for any given finger motion. Sounds simple, right?  But
> "finger motion" is another subject entirely!

Grin... wellll lets forget the finger motion for the time being, and
what happens after the hammer leaves the jacktop. What I am interested
in is finding out exactly how much work is required of the finger to
accelerate a given key mass to any realistic velocity for any given top
action mass and action ratio... how to manipulate that by changing
parameters of key mass, hammer mass and action ratio.  The Stanwood
equation goes only a little ways along this road... tho its a good deal
farther then what preceeded it.


Sounds to me tho...l like you are suggesting determining an equation
through some sort of regression, and taking 1st and 2nd deriviatives to
get at  velocity and acceleration for it. If so... yes that much sound
rather easy. Why dont we a step through example.. ? :)

Cheers
RicB

>   Don A. Gilmore
> Mechanical Engineer
> Kansas City

--
Richard Brekne
RPT, N.P.T.F.
UiB, Bergen, Norway
mailto:rbrekne@broadpark.no
http://home.broadpark.no/~rbrekne/ricmain.html
http://www.hf.uib.no/grieg/personer/cv_RB.html


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