---------------------- multipart/alternative attachment In a message dated 1/31/2004 11:13:01 PM Pacific Standard Time, davidskolnik@optonline.net writes: David wrote So I think you are saying that having zero or negative downbearing should have no detrimental effect on the quality of an individual note. Do I have that right? I guess I would wonder then how many notes, how large a section would it take for zero or negative downbearing to have a discernable impact? Or to borrow a term from the sculptor Richard Serra, how "site-specific" is impedance? David Your above statement is obviously one of the questions you most assuredly asked about & so I my description of an artificially/accidently induced section of 0 bearing in the 1st capo section of a stwy A with all other sections having adequate bearing was attempt to give an example of what your alluding to. The fact that this condition did indeed produce a negative tonal response is at least one example of whatever it is your trying to get at according to your question above. I assume your talking tonal impact? Can some body forward the original postee on this thread? Dale Erwin Erwins Piano Restorations 4721 Parker Rd, Modesto, Ca. 95357 erwinspiano@aol.com ---------------------- multipart/alternative attachment An HTML attachment was scrubbed... URL: https://www.moypiano.com/ptg/pianotech.php/attachments/ff/f5/3e/52/attachment.htm ---------------------- multipart/alternative attachment--
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