No downbearing ? REVISITED

Erwinspiano@aol.com Erwinspiano@aol.com
Mon, 2 Feb 2004 00:19:01 EST


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In a message dated 1/31/2004 11:13:01 PM Pacific Standard Time, 
davidskolnik@optonline.net writes:
   David  wrote
So I think you are saying that having zero or negative downbearing should 
have no detrimental effect on the quality of an individual note. Do I have that 
right?  I guess I would wonder then how many notes, how large a section would 
it take for zero or negative downbearing to have a discernable impact?  Or to 
borrow a term from the sculptor Richard Serra, how "site-specific" is impedance?
  David 
Your above statement is obviously one of the questions you most assuredly 
asked about & so I  my description of an artificially/accidently induced section 
of 0 bearing in the 1st capo section of a stwy A with all other sections 
having adequate bearing was attempt to give an example of what your alluding to. 
The fact that this condition did indeed produce a  negative tonal response is at 
least one example of whatever it is your trying to get at according to your 
question above. I assume your talking tonal impact?
   Can some body forward the original postee on this thread?
  Dale Erwin
Erwins Piano Restorations
4721 Parker Rd, Modesto, Ca. 95357
erwinspiano@aol.com

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