I have a 1902 Hardman, Peck upright that has a wooden "nut" in the bass. [I never knew it was called that in pianos, but I also play cello, which along with other instruments in the viol family, has an ebony nut.] The bass is very rich and resonant, sounding better than many "baby grands," but I always thought it was the strings -- and they're not even copper-wound, except the lowest `10 or so. The rest are nickel-wound, I believe (they're gray). But I can't say I've seen an upper string termination of hardwood in pianos of the 1920's or later -- it's usually a metal "ridge" on the plate, with bridge pins or agraffes. So many other factors enter into the tone production that it's difficult to narrow it down to the type of upper string termination, but it's not hard to see why it would affect the timbre of the bass strings. --David Nereson, RPT -----Original Message----- From: pianotech-bounces at ptg.org [mailto:pianotech-bounces at ptg.org]On Behalf Of Joseph Garrett Sent: Thursday, December 14, 2006 8:34 PM To: pianotech Subject: Re: Wood Upper Bridges aka "Nut" Don said: "I feel that there is also a negative impact on the tone of having such a soft termination as a wood bridge at both ends of the strings, as with your Bl?thner. At least, it would be negative to me, but then perhaps a more muted tone quality with shorter sustain in the high partials (which can seem to enhance the fundamental) was the intention of the designer." Don, I dunno if it could be considered "..a negative impact on the tone...." One major instance that comes to mind is my olde Hagstrom Bass Guitar. It came with a wood lower bridge and phenolic nut. The tone was very distinctive. At the time that I needed a bass with more "bite", I modified it by putting a brass bridge and an Elk horn nut. The tone was a totally different thing. More "bite" and the harmonics were less subdued. As I work on a lot of really olde pianer thingees, I've noticed that the pianos with a wooden Nut, have a completely different sound. I choose to think that this was a preferred sound pre-1900. I guess what I'm trying to say, is that the sound will be different but not necessarily "bad" ....just different. I don't think that a reversal of tone preference is anything that will occur,...but....it is interesting to say the least Regards, Joseph Garrett, R.P.T. Captain, Tool Police Squares R I
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