Over-Strike vs Under-Strike

ed440 at mindspring.com ed440 at mindspring.com
Fri Nov 24 09:12:11 MST 2006


Does "overstrike" just refer to the angle of one part (if so, which part?), or to a situation in the system?  Does it refer to an absolute ideal or to the intended design (such as the Bechstein  grand action ca. 1900, which we might say "was designed to overstrike" if we're talking about the angle of the shank, but is doing just fine if we're talking about the intended design).
It's not too late to get together a motion for council to appoint a committee.

While you're at it, what is the correct technical term for what you are checking when you lightly touch the hammer to the strings and pluck to see if all three strings make the same "plink?" Hammer/string contact? Hammer fit?
String level?

Ed Sutton

-----Original Message-----
>From: Joseph Garrett <joegarrett at earthlink.net>
>Sent: Nov 24, 2006 10:41 AM
>To: pianotech <pianotech at ptg.org>
>Subject: Over-Strike vs Under-Strike
>
>Upon reading the follow-ups of Jons query, I'd like to wonder which is
>which. I've always considered "Over-Strike" as the Downward angle of the
>hammer, which would put the hammer Beyond Perpendicular. ??? Am I correct
>on that? If so, then, "Under-Strike" would be, where the hammer does not
>achieve Perpendicular, on contact?? The "Over-Strike" hammer, (on an
>Upright), would "scruff", (for lack of a better word), downward, at impact.
>The "Under-Stike" hammer would therefore "scruff" upwards.
>Do I have all of this backwards? Confused minds need to know what the
>consensus is.<G>
>
>
>Joseph Garrett, R.P.T.
>Captain, Tool Police
>Squares R I
>
>



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