[pianotech] theory question

[Paul T Williams]

Even vocalists??? LOL

I get the drift.  Like lipping up on a sax or something to match what's 
going on???  How do they match the piano or other fixed keyboard 
instruments or are all the keyboards, just "out of tune" with the rest of 
the orchestra on certain passages?




From:
"Tom Rhea, Jr." <rheapiano at cox.net>
To:
<pianotech at ptg.org>
Date:
09/27/2011 03:07 PM
Subject:
Re: [pianotech] theory question



Hi Paul,
 
An instrumentalist generally only plays one note at a time but all of the 
notes of the score must be harmonically related.  That’s true even with a 
vocalist.  If you look at a score (piano, orchestral, choral, etc) and 
analyze each chord, you’ll find that they can be broken down into a very 
logical, though sometimes extremely complex, structure.  What confuses me 
at times, is a note (G# for instance) that crosses a bar line and becomes 
an A flat.  Musically, they’re the same note but harmonically they’re not 
because the other notes in the chord have changed, making the entire 
structure into something different, even though the two notes (G# and A 
flat) sound the same to the ear.  Instrumentalists, but especially 
vocalists, have to be aware that the A flat must be tuned slightly when 
going from a G# because of the inharmonicity within the chord structure. 
As piano technicians, we have to be aware of the same inharmonicity when 
tuning since some of the intervals need to be stretched or compressed 
slightly to match the temperament.  The same occurs in instrumental or 
vocal music, too, especially with string instrumentalists and vocalists.
 
I hope this hasn’t been too long-winded and makes some sort of sense.
 
Regards,
Tom
 
 

From: pianotech-bounces at ptg.org [mailto:pianotech-bounces at ptg.org] On 
Behalf Of Paul T Williams
Sent: Tuesday, September 27, 2011 3:30 PM
To: pianotech at ptg.org
Subject: Re: [pianotech] theory question
 
Ahhh!   Makes sense to me. Thanks for clarifying this.  I always wondered 
that, too.  But;  why do this, when the notes are just written in the 
score?  Would a bassist wonder why he/she is playing an E or G when it's a 
C chord?  I've always just played what's written. Am I missing something? 

Best, 
Paul 



From: 
"Tom Rhea, Jr." <rheapiano at cox.net> 
To: 
<joegarrett at earthlink.net>, <pianotech at ptg.org> 
Date: 
09/27/2011 02:04 PM 
Subject: 
Re: [pianotech] theory question
 




Hi Joe, et al,

The actual theory behind this convention is this:

Consider the CEG major chord and the note positions when being played. All
the notes are said to be in their root positions.

When a first inversion of the CEG chord is being played, the E and G are 
in
their root positions but the C has been moved up an octave and is now a 
4th
interval above the highest adjacent root note, the G.  This position, EGC,
is said to be a C Major 4 or first inversion of the C Major chord.

In the second inversion of the CEG chord, the only note still in its root
position is the G.  The C and E are moved an octave above their root
positions, such that the E is a 6th interval above the G (in its root
position) and the C is a 4th interval from the G (in its root position),
hence a C Major 6/4.

All of the chords are spelled from the bottom.  However, the intervals 
which
comprise the inversions are labeled from the highest note still in its 
root
position to the one or two notes that have been moved up an octave from
their root positions, either a 4th interval for a first inversion or a 6th
and a 4th interval for a second inversion.  The labeling of the inversion
intervals is always from the highest interval first.

I hope this helps with understanding the theory question.

Regards,
Tom


-----Original Message-----
From: pianotech-bounces at ptg.org [mailto:pianotech-bounces at ptg.org] On 
Behalf
Of Joseph Garrett
Sent: Tuesday, September 27, 2011 2:26 PM
To: pianotech
Subject: Re: [pianotech] theory question

Ken said: "I concur with Tom. You count from the bottom up. A "6" is the
interval between the E and the C when in first inversion. In second
inversion, G, C, E, there is a 4th between the G-C and an "6" between the
G-E."

Ken Gerler (I was a theory major in college)

Hmmm? if that were the case, then the later would be a 4/6 rather than a
6/4. Right?<G> Personally, I prefer the Jazz Musicians way of saying
something like "the C chord with a G in the bass.<G>
That's my take on that.
Joe


Joe Garrett, R.P.T.
Captain of the Tool Police
Squares R I




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