<!doctype html public "-//w3c//dtd html 4.0 transitional//en"> <html> Wim,     What kind of piano are we talking about? Steinway B or Hamilton? (Or somewhere between). Smaller the instrument, shorter the bass strings, equals much less lower partials as part of the tonal spectrum, regardless of tunings, voicing or whatever (though some scales are better than others). And, BTW, doing what you describe will excite ALL the partials of the upper note. How prominent the first partial of the upper note is will vary. Should at least be present, though. I walked next door to a vacant classroom and did what you describe on a Steinway B, and heard the first partial of the upper note all the way to A0/A1.     All that said, do your best to humor the guy. I doubt very much he knows what the heck he's talking about (a little knowledge is a dangerous thing - he picked up some notion off a wall somewhere. I once spent considerable time explaining to our bassoon professor why the bass on his piano didn't match his little electronic tuner. All my notes were flat. Fancy that! He had been trying to match his tuner when playing his bassoon - first partials, that is - and even teaching his students the same malarky. Like I said, a _little_ knowledge . . .) Regards, Fred Sturm University of New Mexico Wimblees@aol.com wrote: <blockquote TYPE=CITE>One of the piano profs called me into his office and asked if I could tune the 1st octave so that more of the 1st partial can be heard. He played C2 while holding down C3, and the first partial sounded on C3. But when he held down C2, and played C1, the first partial wasn't there. Such was also the case in all the notes from A0 - B1. How can I tune that first octave to have the first partial sound on the octave above? I use a SATIII, using the program from Sanderson. Wim</blockquote> </html>