Paul N. Bailey wrote: >Pianos sound better in well temperaments than they do in equal=20 temperament. << The use of a subjective expression like "better" always raises a red = flag to me. What does this mean? You dismiss allotting this to taste a = little to easily. Was it "better" in all keys? What kind of music was being played? Was it = more "resonant" in the F# and C# notes along with the Cs and Fs? This = wouldn't make sense, at least not to me. I'd like to suggest that a "better" way to express this would be = something like "it sounded better to me and others present," under the = circumstances at the time. There is something to be said for a tuning system that has been so = successful for so long. There is also much to be said for the = alternatives under some circumstances. But saying emphatically that one = makes pianos sound "better" than another is removing the possibility of = taste from the discussion. So what, are just trying to stir the pot a bit and see what it smells = like? Don Mannino RPT
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