Just curious. Why would you glue the lead in there in the first place? I thought it was always a friction fit. Avery At 08:17 AM 12/1/05, you wrote: >I'm wondering if simply having the lead in there glued or not would perform >the same function in terms of reducing flex. Moreover, is there any >compelling reason to not drill all the way through versus drilling all the >way through in terms of key performance (or anything else for that matter)? >I guess that's the question. > >David Love >davidlovepianos@comcast.net > >-----Original Message----- >From: pianotech-bounces@ptg.org [mailto:pianotech-bounces@ptg.org] On Behalf >Of Farrell >Sent: Thursday, December 01, 2005 5:15 AM >To: Pianotech >Subject: Re: Drilling for key leads and key flex > >I don't know for sure, as I am not an engineer, but it sure seem likely to >me that a hole drilled half-way through the key will induce half the flex >that a hole drilled completely through would induce. However, if flex is the > >concern, I should think that if you glued/epoxied the lead in place, then no > >flex would be induced - or rather the change in flex would be limited to the > >flex difference between spruce and lead (good golly, what would that be?). > >So there's my half-cent worth (or worthless, as the case may well be). > >Terry Farrell > >----- Original Message ----- > > When installing keyleads in new keys, will there be any significant > > difference in key flex if you drill the holes all the way through versus > > not. Let's assume for arguments sake that the holes are located in the > > center of the key. > > > > David Love > > >_______________________________________________ >pianotech list info: https://www.moypiano.com/resources/#archives > > >_______________________________________________ >pianotech list info: https://www.moypiano.com/resources/#archives
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