I have been really, really studying tonight. Can someone please explain the system they use to tune 2:1, 4:2 and 6:3 octaves. I am so close to grasping this concept, but I think I need another tech to explain it to me besides Reblitz. In the octave interval, if I were to tune a 4:2, the fourth partial of the lower note theoretically has the same frequency as the 2nd partial of the upper note. Do those partials normally dominate each octave? How can I tell whether to tune a 4:2 or a 6:3? Oh, and lets leave inharmonicity for another post. I am just trying to grasp this main theoretical concept. Thank you! Matthew --------------------------------- Need a vacation? Get great deals to amazing places on Yahoo! Travel. -------------- next part -------------- An HTML attachment was scrubbed... URL: https://www.moypiano.com/ptg/pianotech.php/attachments/20070821/03ac0e03/attachment.html
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