[pianotech] fraud

[Noah Haverkamp]

Good Point. Unless he thinks it will be difficult to actually sell for the fair market value. Which seems like a reasonable thing to assume. In this case, he would as you suggest lose money to the customer, but perhaps (i don't know about the tax situation) give less money to the gov't?  Thereby: 1) doing someone a favor by selling a nice piano for a more affordable price, 2) saving the hassle of trying to sell a piano for a year, as well as 3) giving less money to a gov't with questionable intentions. 

-snip-
Sorry, that logic does not compute.  If the fair market value of the
piano is $25,000, he makes the most money by selling it for $25,000,
not by selling it for less than it's worth and writing off the
difference.  If he's already planning to sell it for less than $25,000,
then he clearly believes that it is worth less than $25,000, and is
asking for a fraudulently inflated appraisal. 

Noah Haverkamp wrote:
>
I see no reason to suppose this person is guilty of fraud in this
sense. He does not imply that the appraiser is to create a value
greater than the fair market value so that he may deceptively profit.
It is an easy thing to infer, however. But the tone of intent in
written word is easily misunderstood. The only thing we know for
certain is that he/she wants to take advantage of the legal system to
avoid losing money he/she does not want to lose. We are all guilty of
that. However, we differ in our style of completing that task.  -Noah
> 
> From:
> paulrevenkojones at aol.com
> To:
> ilvey at sbcglobal.net, pianotech at ptg.org
> David:
> 
> Do we all know the word "fraud"?
> 
>
To _solicit or create_ a value which is not a "fair market value" in
order to cause a purported capital loss on the sale is fraud.
> 
> Paul

Noah Haverkamp Frere
Know-a Piano? 
http://www.knowapiano.com 
347-308-0094 

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