[pianotech] Aurally pure octaves

Richard Brekne ricb at pianostemmer.no
Sun Mar 8 16:15:57 PDT 2009


Hi Paul.

I think its important to remember we have parallel but not entirely 
vocabularies going on here.  Beatless octaves do certainly exist in the 
one but as you well point out in the world of coincident partials... no 
way Jose.  In that other reality... its a kind of masking going on... 
the apparent beatlessness that results from finding that sweet spot 
where the partials beating that is indeed there is so very easy to 
ignore... not even notice.

As for the affirmation of aural practices that have always been.... ya 
know what Paul... I think I'll go a good long ways down that road with 
you.  It gets more complicated then just that of course... but its 00:15 
here in Bergen... and I'll just leave it at that.

G'nite
RicB


    Ric:
     
    Thanks for the info. But my take is that this is not new, but simply
    affirmation of aural practice which has always been "aural", not
    mathematical. I  also think that the repetition of the phrase
    "beatless octave" is a disservice to tuning--there is no such thing,
    and its use by some as descriptive of a  phenomenon is as confusing
    as saying "false beats" when in reality they are  real. :-)
     
    Paul

 




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