<!doctype html public "-//w3c//dtd html 4.0 transitional//en"> <html> <body bgcolor="#D8D0C8">   "Delwin D. Fandrich" wrote: <blockquote TYPE=CITE> <blockquote style="BORDER-LEFT: #000000 2px solid; MARGIN-LEFT: 5px; MARGIN-RIGHT: 0px; PADDING-LEFT: 5px; PADDING-RIGHT: 0px">Hence the querrie I made about the "left over" force that could possibly cause an accelleration of the hammer after the actual and direct force of the key has been removed. After several posts I think we all have gotten the point that there has to be a force to accelerate/deaccelerate and object. Yet none of these have really addressed the origional query satisfactorilly, tho a couple have mentioned lightly the below. What I'd be curious to know,  is if and when the flexing of action parts can cause such an acceleration.</blockquote> At no point, except, possibly, very light pianissimo, is the link between key and hammer as direct as we traditionally like to assume. There is nearly always a certain amount of bending and twisting going on. During this process it is possible that it could be contributing to some acceleration somewhere at some specific time. But I wouldn't count on it. The only quick answer I can think of to your question goes back to the varying time lag between the start of key motion and the end of hammer motion. This time lag exists because of the bending and compressing of the various action components. If we were somehow able to use these bending motions to accelerate the hammer to some faster velocity than would otherwise be possible, it seems to me we should then be able to arrange for the hammer to impact the string sooner than it otherwise would without this bending and flexing. I.e., the bending motion would accelerate the hammer faster and it would travel faster than would be the case with a perfectly rigid action. Carrying this to its logical conclusion then, with a compliant action we should be able to get the hammer to impact the strings somewhat before we strike the key. Nice trick if only we could get it.  </blockquote> Ok ok... I'm off to the drug store... this calls for some heavy duty pain killers :)   <blockquote TYPE=CITE>I think it is possible--probable--that the bending and flexing motion of various action components--particularly that of the hammershank--can and does cause the velocity and the motion of the hammer to vary. Unfortunately, this is in no way controllable. And, I think, but have not proven, that the velocity of a real-world hammer will always be somewhat less than it would be with a perfectly rigid action. Del</blockquote> Thanks for your thoughts Del. Cheers RicB -- Richard Brekne RPT, N.P.T.F. UiB, Bergen, Norway <A HREF="mailto:rbrekne@broadpark.no">mailto:rbrekne@broadpark.no</A> <A HREF="http://home.broadpark.no/~rbrekne/ricmain.html">http://home.broadpark.no/~rbrekne/ricmain.html</A>   </body> </html>