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<DIV><FONT face=Arial size=2>Hi Todd,</FONT></DIV>
<DIV><FONT face=Arial size=2>The discription of the octaves speak for themselfs.
In the 4:2 example the 4th partial of the lower note coincides with the 2nd
partial of the upper note. Same explaination for 2:1 and 6:3</FONT></DIV>
<DIV><FONT face=Arial size=2>I think I would say yes, the 4:2 dominates in the
temperament area as well as just above and below it slightly.</FONT></DIV>
<DIV><FONT face=Arial size=2>The way I tune the 4:2 octave is first by tuning
the octave close - getting it to sound beatless - I am not focusing my hearing
at this time on any particular partial. Then I use the 3rd 10th test (this is
the test for the 4:2 octave) the third should beat equal to the
10th.</FONT></DIV>
<DIV><FONT face=Arial size=2>Next I like to listen to the 2:1 and 6:3
octave tests for greater confirmation. </FONT></DIV>
<DIV><FONT face=Arial size=2>If I have tuned f3 to f4 and the 3rd 10th tests
about equal beating then I listen to the 10th 17th (2:1 octave test). If
the octave that I just tuned is correct at 4:2 then the 2:1 should test wide -
the 10th should be slower than the 17th.</FONT></DIV>
<DIV><FONT face=Arial size=2>Also I will listen to the 6:3 which is the minor
3rd major 6th test. This test should have the minor 3rd beating faster than the
major 6th. The 6:3 should test narrow.</FONT></DIV>
<DIV><FONT face=Arial size=2>So - at f3-f4 I have set the octave to get it
beatless, tuned a 4:2 and used the 4:2 test - if it is correct the 2:1 partials
of f3-f4 octave are wide and the 6:3 partials of f3-f4 octave are
norrow - you cannot go wrong.</FONT></DIV>
<DIV><FONT face=Arial size=2>One thing that you can experiment
with while tuning f3-f4 is to widen the octave so that the 6:3 minor
3rd-major 6th tests equal beating and listen to the octave. Does it sound good
or bad. Do the same thing with f3-f4 but now tune the 2:1 partials so that the
10th 17th are equal beating. Does it sound good or bad?</FONT></DIV>
<DIV><FONT face=Arial size=2>Gene Nelson</FONT></DIV>
<BLOCKQUOTE
style="PADDING-RIGHT: 0px; PADDING-LEFT: 5px; MARGIN-LEFT: 5px; BORDER-LEFT: #000000 2px solid; MARGIN-RIGHT: 0px">
<DIV style="FONT: 10pt arial">----- Original Message ----- </DIV>
<DIV
style="BACKGROUND: #e4e4e4; FONT: 10pt arial; font-color: black"><B>From:</B>
<A title=toddpianoworks@yahoo.com
href="mailto:toddpianoworks@yahoo.com">Matthew Todd</A> </DIV>
<DIV style="FONT: 10pt arial"><B>To:</B> <A title=pianotech@ptg.org
href="mailto:pianotech@ptg.org">pianotech@ptg.org</A> </DIV>
<DIV style="FONT: 10pt arial"><B>Sent:</B> Tuesday, August 21, 2007 8:11
PM</DIV>
<DIV style="FONT: 10pt arial"><B>Subject:</B> 2:1, 4:2, 6:3 octaves</DIV>
<DIV><BR></DIV>
<DIV>I have been really, really studying tonight.</DIV>
<DIV> </DIV>
<DIV>Can someone please explain the system they use to tune 2:1, 4:2 and 6:3
octaves. I am so close to grasping this concept, but I think I need
another tech to explain it to me besides Reblitz.</DIV>
<DIV> </DIV>
<DIV>In the octave interval, if I were to tune a 4:2, the fourth partial of
the lower note theoretically has the same frequency as the 2nd partial of the
upper note. Do those partials normally dominate each octave? How
can I tell whether to tune a 4:2 or a 6:3?</DIV>
<DIV> </DIV>
<DIV>Oh, and lets leave inharmonicity for another post. I am just trying
to grasp this main theoretical concept.</DIV>
<DIV> </DIV>
<DIV>Thank you!<BR>Matthew</DIV>
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