David,<div><br></div><div>You are correct on this. It's the P4-P5 test, not the other way around.</div><div><br></div><div>-- <br>JF<br><br><div class="gmail_quote">On Tue, Oct 28, 2008 at 9:17 AM, Porritt, David <span dir="ltr"><<a href="mailto:dporritt@mail.smu.edu">dporritt@mail.smu.edu</a>></span> wrote:<br>
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<p><b><span style="font-size:10.0pt">From:</span></b><span style="font-size:10.0pt">
<a href="mailto:pianotech-bounces@ptg.org" target="_blank">pianotech-bounces@ptg.org</a> [mailto:<a href="mailto:pianotech-bounces@ptg.org" target="_blank">pianotech-bounces@ptg.org</a>] <b>On Behalf Of </b>Jeff
Deutschle<br>
<b>Sent:</b> Tuesday, October 28, 2008 9:12 AM<br>
<b>To:</b> Pianotech List<br>
<b>Subject:</b> Re: Contiguous Major Thirds Accuracy?</span></p>
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<p><span style="color:#1F497D">--- snip ---</span></p><div class="Ih2E3d">
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<p>Can you explain how the A3-E4 and E4-A4 beat speeds are
equal in a 4:2 octave?</p>
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<p><span style="color:#1F497D">They aren't. A 5<sup>th</sup>
on top of a 4<sup>th</sup> (A3-D4 and D4 – A4) would beat the same, but the
intervals you describe would have the 4<sup>th</sup> beating twice the speed of
the 5<sup>th</sup>. </span></p>
<p><span style="color:#1F497D"> </span></p>
<p><span style="color:#1F497D">dp</span></p>
<p><span style="color:#1F497D"> </span></p>
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<p><span style="color:#1F497D">David M. Porritt, RPT</span></p>
<p><span style="color:#1F497D"><a href="http://dporritt@smu.edu" target="_blank"><span style="color:blue">dporritt@smu.edu</span></a></span></p>
<p><span style="color:#1F497D"> </span></p>
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