<HTML><FONT FACE=arial,helvetica><FONT SIZE=2>In a message dated 7/26/01 7:20:45 AM Central Daylight Time,
<BR>mfarrel2@tampabay.rr.com writes:
<BR>
<BR>
<BR><BLOCKQUOTE TYPE=CITE style="BORDER-LEFT: #0000ff 2px solid; MARGIN-LEFT: 5px; MARGIN-RIGHT: 0px; PADDING-LEFT: 5px">I'm always trying to better my ability to value pianos. My understanding
<BR>(from Larry Fine's book) is that a good rule of thumb is to devalue a piano
<BR>from new, 25% every 5 to 10 years. Using that, this Bosey might be worth
<BR>less than $40,000. Larry's guide does not take into account calculating
<BR>cost of repairs.
<BR>
<BR>I curious about just how you figure for something like this. Is this your
<BR>general rule to take 10% off per year and then subtract cost of repairs to
<BR>make it like new? My guess is this would fall apart for a piano that is in
<BR>very good condition and 20 years old, but might be real good for older
<BR>pianos. Please fill me/us in on any details I have not identified. Thanks!
<BR>
<BR>Terry Farrell
<BR></FONT><FONT COLOR="#000000" SIZE=3 FAMILY="SANSSERIF" FACE="Arial" LANG="0"></BLOCKQUOTE>
<BR></FONT><FONT COLOR="#000000" SIZE=2 FAMILY="SANSSERIF" FACE="Arial" LANG="0">
<BR>Terry
<BR>
<BR>I think Larry's figures are too high. The way he has it, in 40 years a piano
<BR>would have no value. We all know that is not true. Even when you take my
<BR>figure of 10% per ten years you have to take into consideration overall
<BR>condition, original quality, etc. And that is not even counting cost of
<BR>repairs.
<BR>
<BR>Wim </FONT></HTML>