<HTML><FONT FACE=arial,helvetica><FONT SIZE=2>In a message dated 10/29/01 10:04:32 AM Central Standard Time, davidlovepianos@earthlink.net writes:
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<BR><BLOCKQUOTE TYPE=CITE style="BORDER-LEFT: #0000ff 2px solid; MARGIN-LEFT: 5px; MARGIN-RIGHT: 0px; PADDING-LEFT: 5px">I state in my contract, when I take a piano or action, that the item is insured for the appraised value at the time of loss and I will provide that amount if requested. If the individual wants to insure for additional, then they have that option.</FONT><FONT COLOR="#000000" SIZE=3 FAMILY="SANSSERIF" FACE="Arial" LANG="0">
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<BR></FONT><FONT COLOR="#000000" SIZE=2 FAMILY="SANSSERIF" FACE="Arial" LANG="0">David Love</FONT><FONT COLOR="#000000" SIZE=3 FAMILY="SANSSERIF" FACE="Arial" LANG="0">
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<BR>As I have sated before, a contract between two parties is perfectly legal. It is when there is a difference of opinion in the interpretation of the contract that a judge has to decided what is meant by the language. The wording on a contract, like what Dave has, has might seem like a way to get around having additional insurance, when push comes to shove, the customer is going to win if the case is brought to trial. It is much cheaper to protect yourself than to pay for a mistake.
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<BR>Wim </FONT></HTML>