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Is the fork's inharmonicity what we are also comparing too? If so,
how does this influance the direction of deviation?<br><br>
Andrew Anderson<br><br>
At 10:57 AM 1/9/2006, you wrote:<br>
<blockquote type=cite class=cite cite="">
<font face="Bookman Old Style, Bookman">A small correction. Recently I
have read:<br>
</font> <br>
"Therefore, if you very accurately match the beat rates of F3-Fork
and<br>
F3-A4, you will tune A4 sharp every single time!"<br>
<br>
<font face="Bookman Old Style, Bookman">and<br>
</font>"If f3 a5 method is used with A5 as the coincident partial
then A4 will be<br>
sharp." <br>
<br>
<font face="Bookman Old Style, Bookman">Not meaning to embarrass anyone,
but just to avoid confusion to those learning the trade, this is not
correct. A perfectly tuned 440 A4 on the piano produces a second partial
which is slightly sharp of 880. IF the fork produces 880 at A5 (which has
recently been called into question), we would have to bring A4 DOWN
(under 440) to match its 2nd partial to the fork's 2nd partial.<br>
</font> <br>
<font face="Bookman Old Style, Bookman">Bob
Davis</font></blockquote></body>
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