<HTML><FONT FACE=arial,helvetica><FONT SIZE=3 FAMILY="SERIF" FACE="=
Bookman Old Style" LANG="0">In a message dated 10/20/2003 8:24:56 AM Pacif=
ic Standard Time, michael@gambles.fsnet.co.uk writes:<BR>
<BR>
<BLOCKQUOTE TYPE=CITE style="BORDER-LEFT: #0000ff 2px solid; MARGIN-LEFT=
: 5px; MARGIN-RIGHT: 0px; PADDING-LEFT: 5px"></FONT><FONT COLOR="#000000"=
style="BACKGROUND-COLOR: #ffffff" SIZE=2 FAMILY="SANSSERIF" FACE="A=
rial" LANG="0">Take your M10 based on A# (which computes at 466.16376.....=
)The 5th. harmonic of that A# = 2796.9826...... the M10 is F(which compute=
s at 1396.9129.......) The 2nd. harmonic of that &nbs=
p; &n=
bsp; F =2793.8259...... There we have a difference of 3.1567..... Hz=
which is the beat you hear</BLOCKQUOTE></FONT><FONT COLOR="#000000" styl=
e="BACKGROUND-COLOR: #ffffff" SIZE=3 FAMILY="SANSSERIF" FACE="Arial"=
LANG="0"><BR>
</FONT><FONT COLOR="#000000" style="BACKGROUND-COLOR: #ffffff" SIZE=3=
FAMILY="SERIF" FACE="Bookman Old Style" LANG="0"><BR>
Sorry, no. Have you read the recent replies on inharmonicity? You might be c=
orrect for organ tuning, but not for piano. On the piano, partials are not e=
xact multiples on ANY note, covered or metal; and not even in the temperamen=
t octave are notes PRECISELY related by the 12th root of two. It's just a li=
ttle wider.<BR>
<BR>
Bob Davis</FONT></HTML>