Aural Pure 5ths Equal Temperament

[Robert Scott]

When we talk about pure octaves we have the distinction between
2:1 octaves (where the 2nd partial of the lower note zero beats
with the fundamental of the higher note) and 4:2 octaves (where
the 4th partial of the lower note zero beats with the 2nd partial
of the higher note.  Due to the variability of inharmonicity these
two tunings are not necessiarily the same.

Doesn't the same consideration hold true for pure 5ths?  There
can be a 3:2 pure fifth (where the 3rd partial of the lower note
zero beats with the 2nd partial of the higher note) or a 6:4 pure
fifth (where the 6th partial of the lower note zero beats with
the 4th partial of the higher note).  I suppose you could even
talk about 9:6 and 12:8 pure fifths too, but by the time the
partials get that high they are probably too weak to need
special attention.  How does this impact the discussion of
tuning by pure 5ths?

Bob Scott
Ann Arbor, Michigan