In a message dated 2/11/2001 12:31:16 PM Central Standard Time, Billbrpt@AOL.COM writes: << However, from a practical point of view, there is nothing to prevent any interval from being *perceived* as beatless. >> Bill: You've hit the nail on the head. It is the whole area of perceived beatlessness that is problematic even for those who agree wholeheartedly with Virgil. What indeed is perceived beatlessness? I suspect that the answer falls more in the psychoacoustic realm than in a tuning theory realm. This makes it no less real, no less effective in the real world, nor any less real as a reportable sensation by Virgil or any other listener, technician or not. But it does beg for a category shift and language clarification. How the individual chooses to hear is purely that--individual. Neither way of hearing is better or worse. Nor does either way of hearing create necessarily a better outcome; the whole idea of "tune-offs" has always had just a bit too much of the carnival sideshow for my taste. Be that as it may, we need to look at this phenomenon in a context that allows for clear terminology and specification. This is all to the good, Bill. Thanks. Paul R-J
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