Hi folks, I've been reading this thread for a while and must be a little confused (relative newbie). If a single strings' partials have inharmonicity, theoretically it seems like it should beat on its' own. Unless something is astray I only hear one beatless tone. So something, maybe the phase relationship, cancels out the beats. Why should it be hard to believe that the same thing can be accomplished when tuning an octave? When my octaves are tuned so that I hear no beat, none of the coincident partials are necessarily pure. But it sounds better to myself and my customers tuned in that fashion. May be a bit simplistic but I would greatly appreciate any attempt to enlighten me. Any takers? Thanks, and have a great day! Kevin S. Riggs NC associate
This PTG archive page provided courtesy of Moy Piano Service, LLC