far bridge pin

Tvak@aol.com Tvak@aol.com
Sat, 5 Apr 2003 23:12:47 EST


When seating strings to the bridge, (to eliminate false beats) I do it on the 
speaking side bridge pins, and also on the non-speaking side.  I do it just 
to be safe, to be sure that the effort I'm making to improve the tone of the 
piano is not for naught.  (And...also because I've been told by the store 
that I work for that that's the way they want it done.)  

Still, I have to wonder if anyone else does this.  

If the purpose of seating strings is to provide a solid termination point for 
the speaking length of the string, then what effect would seating the string 
to the other bridge pin have on the tone, or falseness of the string?

Have I been wasting my time seating strings to both sets of bridge pins?

Recently, I successfully eliminated false beating in a Samick grand by 
tapping the bridge pins in deeper. (Seating the strings to the bridge did not 
seem to help on this piano.)  I tapped the pins in only on the speaking side 
bridge pins, and that alone made a HUGE difference in the tuning of this 
beast.  For the first time (and I've tuned this piano about 12 times now) the 
piano sounded in tune when I was done with it.  

Should I have tapped in the non-speaking pins, too?  

Tom S

This PTG archive page provided courtesy of Moy Piano Service, LLC