Hi John, Hertz are logarithmic and cents are not. A cent is 1/100 of a semitone. The number of hertz in a semitone is different from g#4 to a4 than e5 to f5, but the number of cents is still 100. So far as I know doppler is based on hertz and not on cents, so the original question can not be answered unless one knows the specific pitch that was being meaured. At 01:39 PM 6/19/2006 -0500, you wrote: > >Hi Vladen-- >Did I learn, incorrectly, that "1 cent" is defined as one one-hundredth of >the Hz difference between one note and an adjacent semi-tone? Or, are the >cents "tempered"? In the first case, the value of each cent is constant >between semi-tones, i.e. one cent above a tone is equal in Hz to the cent >below the next semi-tone. In the second case, the "first" cent is not equal >in Hz to the "last" cent. I'm a newbie with more mathematical sense than >piano sense, so I just want to get it right!! >JD Regards, Don Rose, B.Mus., A.M.U.S., A.MUS., R.P.T. Non calor sed umor est qui nobis incommodat mailto:pianotuna at yahoo.com http://us.geocities.com/drpt1948/ 3004 Grant Rd. REGINA, SK, S4S 5G7 306-539-0716 or 1-888-29t-uner
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