Subject: Re: Partials of Forks?

Ric Brekne ricbrek at broadpark.no
Thu May 4 10:49:24 MDT 2006


The way they explained it to me at the Acadamy in Japan, was that pitch 
(according to them) was figured from a A3(2), and not A4(1).  When they 
measured pitch for exams with their machines they measured at A3.  The 
two instructors that demonstrated their personal technic to me compared 
F3-Fork=F3-A3.  The reason it works I think is covered well by Roberts 
post. 

A high quality fork measured correctly will not have any partials until 
way up the ladder.  I forget but there is one partial I think about half 
way inbetween the 6th and 7th true harmonic... or something like that.  
Other pianostring like partials that are picked up by devices like 
Tunelab are either because the fork is poorly made, or because of what 
Robert wrote about.  At least thats the skinny from the producers of the 
best tuning forks available.

As far as why one tuner chooses one method over another.... different 
strokes.  A good tuner will get it right anyways. 

Cheers
RicB


----------------
Having said that, suppose we accept that the fork does produce 880.0. If
you use the Yamaha method, you are tuning A3 such that its 4th partial
is 880.0. If you then tune A4 to that, how do you know when you have
A4's fundamental at 440? If you tune a 2:1, A4 will be flat, because
there is more than an octave between A3's 2nd and 4th partials. If you
tune a 4:2, A4 will be even flatter, amount depending on inharmonicity. No?


----------------
My point is, you have a fork, supposedly producing exactly 440.0. Why
not use it directly, as in F2-A4=F2-Fork, instead of interposing at
least one (string inharmonic) or two (fork inharmonic) variables?


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