Regulating with metrics has always seemed like such a natural way to do it. Maybe it's because I work on more Asian and European pianos than American built instruments, and all of the instruction and other printed material I've seen was metric in nature. Dividing and multiplying into 1s, 10s and 100s is far simpler for me than doing the same operations by 64ths, 32nds, 16ths, etc., etc. Dave Stahl Dave Stahl Piano Service dstahlpiano.net -----Original Message----- From: Dean May <deanmay at pianorebuilders.com> To: 'Pianotech List' <pianotech at ptg.org> Sent: Tue, 5 Feb 2008 6:07 am Subject: RE: Regulating With Metrics A hearty amen. When going through engineering school we primarily used metrics and even when I worked in design in industry. It sure did make the calculations easier. Here’s a rough chart for you: 1” = 25 mm (25.4) 3/4 = 19 (19.1) 1/2 = 13 (12.7) 1/4 = 6 (6.35) 1/8 = 3 (3.175) 1/16 = about 1.5 (1.6) 1/32 = about 1 (.8) Dean Dean May cell 812.239.3359 PianoRebuilders.com 812.235.5272 Terre Haute IN 47802 From: pianotech-bounces at ptg.org [mailto:pianotech-bounces at ptg.org] On Behalf Of Jurgen Goering Sent: Monday, February 04, 2008 11:53 PM To: pianotech at ptg.org Subject: Re: Regulating Without Specs At the risk of opening a large can of worms and an even larger debate, I think this is perfect example of why going metric (like Dale Erwin demonstrated) is such an elegant mode of transport through exercises such as these. Mixing fractions with decimal inches may work in this prepped example, but the numbers are hardly ever so fortuitous. I heartily suggest to all technicians to immerse themselves in millimeters, stop converting to inches, buy metric rulers, calipers and whatever other measuring tools they need and discover the brilliant ease of working in that system. ducking for cover... Jurgen Goering On Feb 4, 2008, at 19:20, pianotech-request at ptg.org wrote: snip... Let’s just say you want something typical like a 3/8” key dip, 1/8” letoff, and .050” aftertouch. (Later I’ll show the equations for solving for different variables) Given the 3/8” key dip (.375”) and the .050” aftertouch, we subtract aftertouch from key dip and know then that we have .325” of useable key dip to move the hammer. How far will it move? It will move 5xs the amount of keydip. 5 x .325” = 1.625”. But that’s not the hammer blow distance, because we haven’t accounted for letoff. If we want 1/8” (.125”) letoff, we need to ADD that to the hammer travel of 1.625”, so the blow distance is then 1.75”, or 1 ¾”. ...snip... OK, Lemme know whatcha think! John Dorr, RPT ________________________________________________________________________ More new features than ever. Check out the new AOL Mail ! - http://webmail.aol.com -------------- next part -------------- An HTML attachment was scrubbed... URL: https://www.moypiano.com/ptg/pianotech.php/attachments/20080205/173b01f5/attachment.html
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