[pianotech] Aurally pure octaves

PAULREVENKOJONES at aol.com PAULREVENKOJONES at aol.com
Sun Mar 8 16:01:35 PDT 2009


Ric:
 
Thanks for the info. But my take is that this is not new, but simply  
affirmation of aural practice which has always been "aural", not mathematical. I  
also think that the repetition of the phrase "beatless octave" is a disservice  
to tuning--there is no such thing, and its use by some as descriptive of a  
phenomenon is as confusing as saying "false beats" when in reality they are  
real. :-)
 
Paul
 
 
In a message dated 3/8/2009 5:30:54 P.M. Central Daylight Time,  
ricb at pianostemmer.no writes:

Hi  Folks..

Reading downwards in the link I supplied to John  ie.  
http://ptg.org/pipermail/pianotech_ptg.org/2009-March/005286.html one  
finds the following Stopper quote


"Since it has  been found that mathematical pure octaves does not
produce  the aural feel of a pure octave, but a slightly stretched
octave will do that, the philosophic importance of this tuning is
that the old  pythagorean tuning is transformed directly into  this
tuning by simply replacing the "mathematical pure"  octaves by "aural
pure" octaves."

Personally I find  this compares very favorably with Virgil Smiths 
descriptions of the  beatless octave. Just thought I'd throw this out 
there for thought...  especially for those of you who adhere to his 
(Virgil's) tuning style.  Think abit about the aural tests you use and 
put them in the perspective  of the present  discussion....

Interesting.

Cheers
RicB




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