Hi Paul. I think its important to remember we have parallel but not entirely vocabularies going on here. Beatless octaves do certainly exist in the one but as you well point out in the world of coincident partials... no way Jose. In that other reality... its a kind of masking going on... the apparent beatlessness that results from finding that sweet spot where the partials beating that is indeed there is so very easy to ignore... not even notice. As for the affirmation of aural practices that have always been.... ya know what Paul... I think I'll go a good long ways down that road with you. It gets more complicated then just that of course... but its 00:15 here in Bergen... and I'll just leave it at that. G'nite RicB Ric: Thanks for the info. But my take is that this is not new, but simply affirmation of aural practice which has always been "aural", not mathematical. I also think that the repetition of the phrase "beatless octave" is a disservice to tuning--there is no such thing, and its use by some as descriptive of a phenomenon is as confusing as saying "false beats" when in reality they are real. :-) Paul
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