[pianotech] theory question

[Tom Rhea, Jr.]

Actually, the pianos/keyboard instruments are fixed in their tuning.  All of
the other instruments in an orchestra are tuned to one instrument, such as
an oboe, which has been previously tuned to the piano.  There is a certain
amount of inharmonicity, to be sure, but it usually isn't enough to be
noticeable in an orchestral setting.  With vocalists, though - especially
when performing a capella - a certain amount of tuning of the human voice is
necessary to match the complexity of the chord structures.

 

  _____  

From: pianotech-bounces at ptg.org [mailto:pianotech-bounces at ptg.org] On Behalf
Of Paul T Williams
Sent: Tuesday, September 27, 2011 4:20 PM
To: pianotech at ptg.org
Subject: Re: [pianotech] theory question

 

Even vocalists??? LOL 

I get the drift.  Like lipping up on a sax or something to match what's
going on???  How do they match the piano or other fixed keyboard instruments
or are all the keyboards, just "out of tune" with the rest of the orchestra
on certain passages? 





From: 

"Tom Rhea, Jr." <rheapiano at cox.net> 


To: 

<pianotech at ptg.org> 


Date: 

09/27/2011 03:07 PM 


Subject: 

Re: [pianotech] theory question

 

  _____  




Hi Paul, 
  
An instrumentalist generally only plays one note at a time but all of the
notes of the score must be harmonically related.  That's true even with a
vocalist.  If you look at a score (piano, orchestral, choral, etc) and
analyze each chord, you'll find that they can be broken down into a very
logical, though sometimes extremely complex, structure.  What confuses me at
times, is a note (G# for instance) that crosses a bar line and becomes an A
flat.  Musically, they're the same note but harmonically they're not because
the other notes in the chord have changed, making the entire structure into
something different, even though the two notes (G# and A flat) sound the
same to the ear.  Instrumentalists, but especially vocalists, have to be
aware that the A flat must be tuned slightly when going from a G# because of
the inharmonicity within the chord structure.  As piano technicians, we have
to be aware of the same inharmonicity when tuning since some of the
intervals need to be stretched or compressed slightly to match the
temperament.  The same occurs in instrumental or vocal music, too,
especially with string instrumentalists and vocalists. 
  
I hope this hasn't been too long-winded and makes some sort of sense. 
  
Regards, 
Tom 
  
  

 

  _____  


From: pianotech-bounces at ptg.org [ <mailto:pianotech-bounces at ptg.org>
mailto:pianotech-bounces at ptg.org] On Behalf Of Paul T Williams
Sent: Tuesday, September 27, 2011 3:30 PM
To: pianotech at ptg.org
Subject: Re: [pianotech] theory question 
  
Ahhh!   Makes sense to me. Thanks for clarifying this.  I always wondered
that, too.  But;  why do this, when the notes are just written in the score?
Would a bassist wonder why he/she is playing an E or G when it's a C chord?
I've always just played what's written. Am I missing something? 

Best, 
Paul 


From: 

"Tom Rhea, Jr." <rheapiano at cox.net> 


To: 

<joegarrett at earthlink.net>, <pianotech at ptg.org> 


Date: 

09/27/2011 02:04 PM 


Subject: 

Re: [pianotech] theory question


  

 

  _____  





Hi Joe, et al,

The actual theory behind this convention is this:

Consider the CEG major chord and the note positions when being played.  All
the notes are said to be in their root positions.

When a first inversion of the CEG chord is being played, the E and G are in
their root positions but the C has been moved up an octave and is now a 4th
interval above the highest adjacent root note, the G.  This position, EGC,
is said to be a C Major 4 or first inversion of the C Major chord.

In the second inversion of the CEG chord, the only note still in its root
position is the G.  The C and E are moved an octave above their root
positions, such that the E is a 6th interval above the G (in its root
position) and the C is a 4th interval from the G (in its root position),
hence a C Major 6/4.

All of the chords are spelled from the bottom.  However, the intervals which
comprise the inversions are labeled from the highest note still in its root
position to the one or two notes that have been moved up an octave from
their root positions, either a 4th interval for a first inversion or a 6th
and a 4th interval for a second inversion.  The labeling of the inversion
intervals is always from the highest interval first.

I hope this helps with understanding the theory question.

Regards,
Tom


-----Original Message-----
From: pianotech-bounces at ptg.org [ <mailto:pianotech-bounces at ptg.org>
mailto:pianotech-bounces at ptg.org] On Behalf
Of Joseph Garrett
Sent: Tuesday, September 27, 2011 2:26 PM
To: pianotech
Subject: Re: [pianotech] theory question

Ken said: "I concur with Tom. You count from the bottom up. A "6" is the
interval between the E and the C when in first inversion. In second
inversion, G, C, E, there is a 4th between the G-C and an "6" between the
G-E."

Ken Gerler (I was a theory major in college)

Hmmm? if that were the case, then the later would be a 4/6 rather than a
6/4. Right?<G> Personally, I prefer the Jazz Musicians way of saying
something like "the C chord with a G in the bass.<G>
That's my take on that.
Joe


Joe Garrett, R.P.T.
Captain of the Tool Police
Squares R I




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