> Larry Fine asked: > > I'm surprised to hear that friction is independent of the contact area. > > Could you please explain why this should be so, counter-intuitively? > > > An intuitive explanation of this may be had by thinking of the > molecular forces which cause friction. Consider static friction, > which applies when there is no relative motion between 2 surfaces. On > a very small scale the surfaces appear very bumpy and where the bumps > coincide the contact area is `cold-welded'. It is these bonds which > must be broken to break the frictional contact between the surfaces. > The minimum force required to break these bonds is independent of > how many there are i.e. the surface area of contact. [Intuitive > reasoning only here as requested.] Intuitively speaking, it seems to me that the more bonds there are, the more force would be required to break them. --- vince mrykalo rpt ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^ The facts all contribute only to setting the problem, not to its solution - Ludwig Wittgenstein ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
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