I have wondered repeatedly why I don't start a pitch raise at C88 rather than A0 (everytime I answer "great idea, try it next time - I never have). I use a SAT III and rubber/felt mutes for pitch raises. Most pianos that need a pitch raise are flattest in the top couple octaves. The top couple octaves is where the risk of string breakage is greatest. Also, when one is raising pitch, the tension of the remaining strings drop an additional amount before you even get to them (my experience is that if the hi treble is 50 cents flat before starting a pitch raise, by the time you get to it after raising the bass and tenor, the hi treble will be perhaps 80 cents flat) thereby increasing the risk of string breakage. Take the common situation where the bass is say 20 cents flat, tenor 30 cents flat, treble 40 cents flat, and hi-treble 50 cents flat. Start raising pitch in the hi-treble and progress toward the bass. Would I not find advantage in giving the piano a more even pitch raise (rather than raising pitch 20 to 80 cents (bass to treble), I would be raising pitch perhaps 50 to 30 cents (treble to bass). Just plain old happier for the piano overall, and much less chance of strings breaking. One of the advantages this may offer is when pitch raising on an old risky piano. I hate the thought of raising pitch on bass and tenor, just to get to the treble and find that strings are breaking right and left. If strings are going to not be able to take A440, you will find out right away if you start at C88 (of course then you are faced with the occassional problem of tener bass strings! - although in my experience that is less common). So now you ask why do I not try it and report back. I will. But before I do, does anyone think this idea has any merit? Has anyone else tried it or do this regularly? Terry Farrell Piano Tuning & Service Tampa, Florida mfarrel2@tampabay.rr.com
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