Hi folks... Just got through reading Virgil Smiths's article "Where's the Beat" in the Jan issue of the Journal. I have been wondering for a while now just what he means by this expression "inside beats", and perhaps I am a bit closer to understanding him after reading this article...perhaps not. Along about the 5th paragraph in this article is the following sentence sequence. "IF A3 has a fundamental frequency of 220hz., then F3 sounding at 176 hz. would produce a pure major 3rd at an exact 5:4 ratio. True so far, it would then seem that, in order to expand the F3-A3 3rd by 7bps, F3 should be lowered by 7 beats to 169 hz." Excuse me.... but isnt this like blantantly wrong thinking ?? The reasoning here is part of a "proof" to show that the beat rate of roughly 7bps in a major 3rd is created not by the beating of the fundementals but by the beating of the 5th and 4th partials of the respective fundementals. Ok..... but isnt this obvious ?? Am I missing something here ?? I was under the impression that by now we all understood enough about beats and partials that if one was for some reason to look at the beat rate between a fundemental of 220hz and another of 176hz we already knew we were looking at 44bps. Why on earth would anyone think that adjusting one or the other of the fundementals of these two frequencies by 7 hz would result in a bps sounding interval ? Because this was a "pure" third to begin with ???? That would seem to me a bit er..... misunderstood to say the least. Ok... so I may be the one who misunderstands... I will certainly re-read this article a few times to see if I can figure out what he is getting at....but for the moment I must admit I am clearly miffed...grin.. so if anyone can shed some light on this I would be greatfull. respectfully, -- Richard Brekne RPT, N.P.T.F. Bergen, Norway mailto:Richard.Brekne@grieg.uib.no
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