Leverage and Dip

Richard Brekne Richard.Brekne@grieg.uib.no
Thu, 03 Oct 2002 23:31:50 +0200


Before we go on... :)  could we resolve what seems to be two mutually
exclusive standpoints here ?

Bill Ballard wrote:

> The problem is of course that there is no direct correlation between
> action leverage as measure by distance and by weight.

David Love writes:

>The action ratio not only refers to the relationship between change in
>weight at the hammer and the resultant change in weight at the key, it
also
>refers to the relationship between key travel and hammer travel...

snip snip.....

>At a ratio of 6:1, for example, 10 mm of dip
>will result in the hammer traveling a total of 60 mm.  (It also means
that a
>change in 1 gram at the key will result in a change of 6 grams in the
>balance weight.)


I dont mean to be a pain or anything... but you two seem to be saying
exactly the opposite about this, and its kind of a central point.

Thanks to both of you for some good reading... Its late and I have been
putting in 18 hour days this last week... so I will re-read both
tommorrow and get back to you.


Cheers

RicB
--
Richard Brekne
RPT, N.P.T.F.
UiB, Bergen, Norway
mailto:rbrekne@broadpark.no
http://home.broadpark.no/~rbrekne/ricmain.html



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