My thought, Allan, is that you have a very good apprentice! He will go far..... Best regards, David. >I had a question from my apprentice that someone on the list may be able to >help me with. We all know that vibrating strings divide up into >segments >with lengths approximately equal to fractional portions, i.e. ½, 1/3, ¼, >1/5, 1/6, etc. (we're not even taking inharmonicity into account >at this >level.) His question is, "Why does the string divide into all of the >different available fractional segments and not just even multiples of > >two?" I was hoping for a much better answer than just, "Because it does" >but Benade, Helmholtz and Rayleigh, the best I can tell, all assume >this >to be a fact and I don't really find the "why." >Any thoughts?
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