This is a multi-part message in MIME format. ---------------------- multipart/alternative attachment ----- Original Message -----=20 From: Richard Brekne=20 To: Pianotech=20 Sent: Tuesday, April 29, 2003 12:07 AM Subject: Re: hammer velocity =20 Hence the querrie I made about the "left over" force that could = possibly cause an accelleration of the hammer after the actual and = direct force of the key has been removed.=20 After several posts I think we all have gotten the point that there = has to be a force to accelerate/deaccelerate and object. Yet none of = these have really addressed the origional query satisfactorilly, tho a = couple have mentioned lightly the below.=20 What I'd be curious to know, is if and when the flexing of action = parts can cause such an acceleration.=20 At no point, except, possibly, very light pianissimo, is the link = between key and hammer as direct as we traditionally like to assume. = There is nearly always a certain amount of bending and twisting going = on. During this process it is possible that it could be contributing to = some acceleration somewhere at some specific time. But I wouldn't count = on it.=20 The only quick answer I can think of to your question goes back to the = varying time lag between the start of key motion and the end of hammer = motion. This time lag exists because of the bending and compressing of = the various action components. If we were somehow able to use these = bending motions to accelerate the hammer to some faster velocity than = would otherwise be possible, it seems to me we should then be able to = arrange for the hammer to impact the string sooner than it otherwise = would without this bending and flexing. I.e., the bending motion would = accelerate the hammer faster and it would travel faster than would be = the case with a perfectly rigid action. Carrying this to its logical = conclusion then, with a compliant action we should be able to get the = hammer to impact the strings somewhat before we strike the key. Nice = trick if only we could get it. I think it is possible--probable--that the bending and flexing motion of = various action components--particularly that of the hammershank--can and = does cause the velocity and the motion of the hammer to vary. = Unfortunately, this is in no way controllable. And, I think, but have = not proven, that the velocity of a real-world hammer will always be = somewhat less than it would be with a perfectly rigid action. Del ---------------------- multipart/alternative attachment An HTML attachment was scrubbed... URL: https://www.moypiano.com/ptg/pianotech.php/attachments/46/c6/0b/be/attachment.htm ---------------------- multipart/alternative attachment--
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