hammer velocity

[Richard Brekne]

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"Delwin D. Fandrich" wrote:

>      Hence the querrie I made about the "left over" force that
>      could possibly cause an accelleration of the hammer after
>      the actual and direct force of the key has been removed.
>
>      After several posts I think we all have gotten the point
>      that there has to be a force to accelerate/deaccelerate and
>      object. Yet none of these have really addressed the
>      origional query satisfactorilly, tho a couple have mentioned
>      lightly the below.
>
>      What I'd be curious to know,  is if and when the flexing of
>      action parts can cause such an acceleration.
>
> At no point, except, possibly, very light pianissimo, is the link
> between key and hammer as direct as we traditionally like to assume.
> There is nearly always a certain amount of bending and twisting going
> on. During this process it is possible that it could be contributing
> to some acceleration somewhere at some specific time. But I wouldn't
> count on it.
>
> The only quick answer I can think of to your question goes back to the
> varying time lag between the start of key motion and the end of hammer
> motion. This time lag exists because of the bending and compressing of
> the various action components. If we were somehow able to use these
> bending motions to accelerate the hammer to some faster velocity than
> would otherwise be possible, it seems to me we should then be able to
> arrange for the hammer to impact the string sooner than it otherwise
> would without this bending and flexing. I.e., the bending motion would
> accelerate the hammer faster and it would travel faster than would be
> the case with a perfectly rigid action. Carrying this to its logical
> conclusion then, with a compliant action we should be able to get the
> hammer to impact the strings somewhat before we strike the key. Nice
> trick if only we could get it.
>

Ok ok... I'm off to the drug store... this calls for some heavy duty
pain killers :)


> I think it is possible--probable--that the bending and flexing motion
> of various action components--particularly that of the
> hammershank--can and does cause the velocity and the motion of the
> hammer to vary. Unfortunately, this is in no way controllable. And, I
> think, but have not proven, that the velocity of a real-world hammer
> will always be somewhat less than it would be with a perfectly rigid
> action.
>
> Del

Thanks for your thoughts Del.

Cheers
RicB

--
Richard Brekne
RPT, N.P.T.F.
UiB, Bergen, Norway
mailto:rbrekne@broadpark.no
http://home.broadpark.no/~rbrekne/ricmain.html


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