David Love wrote: > > Thanks for that clarification and explanations, however, even with > that the numbers don’t make sense. Let’s assume that the left side of > the equation produces an action ratio of 5.5—a fairly standard target. > Then if we look at the right side of the equation and target a key dip > of 10mm, say. By your analysis the denominator would be 7.5 (.75 x 10) > making the numerator 39.7mm representing blow distance minus > let-off??? That doesn’t seem to bear any resemblance to what one would > expect from an action ratio of 5.5 in practice. Clearly the > dip-aftertouch number is at issue but the assignment of the AT number > seems somewhat arbitrary in order to make the formula work. What, > then, is the point of the right side of the equation at all? > Unless I'm completely missing something, the reason the right side of the equation can't make proper sense with the left is that the action actually has a variable ratio. 5.0 is @ half but considerable higher at the beginning of the stroke, fallingand 0 at letoff. As I see that equation, it is assuming the ration @ 1/2 stroke is constant throughout the entire kestroke=not true. Action rations seem to me to be confusing designations, since you really are talking either about an average (I don't see that factored into the left side), or a fictitious static number. No? Jim I grandpianosolutions.com
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